UGC NET Paper 1 December 2012

UGC NET Paper 1 December 2012

 1. The English word communication is derived from which

of the following words?

(a) Communis and communicate

(b) Communist and commune

(c) Communism and communalism

(d) Communion and common sense

 2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao Zedong used

a type of communication to talk to the masses and it is

known as

(a) Mass line communication

(b) Group communication

(c) Participatory communication

(d) Dialogue communication

 3. Conversing with the spirits and ancestors is termed as

(a) Transpersonal communication

(b) Intrapersonal communication

(c) Interpersonal communication

(d) Face-to-face communication

 4. The largest circulated daily newspaper among the

 following is

(a) The Times of India

(b) The Indian Express

(c) The Hindu

(d) The Deccan Herald

 5. The pioneer of silent feature fi lm in India was

(a) K. A. Abbas (b) Satyajit Ray

(c) B. R. Chopra (d) Dadasaheb Phalke

 6. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of

(a) Infotainment (b) Edutainment

(c) Entertainment (d) Power equation

 7. The missing number in the series

 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is

(a) 240 (b) 220

(c) 280 (d) 210

 8. A group of 7 members having a majority of boys is to be

formed out of 6 boys and 4 girls. The number of ways the

group can be formed is

(a) 80 (b) 100

(c) 90 (d) 110

 9. The number of observations in a group is 40. The average of the fi rst 10 members is 4.5 and the average of remaining 30 members is 3.5. The average of the whole

group is

(a) 4 (b) 15/2

(c) 15/4 (d) 6

10. If ‘MOHAN’ is represented by the code ‘KMFYL’, then

‘COUNT’ will be represented by

(a) AMSLR (b) MSLAR

(c) MASRL (d) SAMLR

 11. The sum of the ages of two person A and B is 50. Five

years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5 : 3. The present

age of A and B is

(a) 30 and 20 (b) 35 and 15

(c) 38 and 12 (d) 40 and 10

 12. Let A mean minus (-), B mean multiplied by (×), C mean

divided by (÷), and D mean plus (+). The value of 90 D 9

A 29 C 10 B 2 is

(a) 8 (b) 10

(c) 12 (d) 14

 13. Consider Assertion I and Assertion II and select the

right code given below.

 Assertion I: Even bank lockers are not safe. Thieves

can break them and take away your wealth. However,

thieves cannot go to heaven. So, you should keep your

wealth in heaven.

 Assertion II: The diff erence in skin colour of living beings

is due to the distance from the sun and not because of

some permanent traits. Skin colour is the result of body’s

reaction to the sun and its rays.

 Codes:

(a) Both the assertions are forms of argument.

(b) Assertion I is an argument, but Assertion II is not.

(c) Assertion II is an argument, but Assertion I is not.

(d) Both the assertions are explanations of facts.

 14. By which of the following proposition, the proposition,

some men are not honest is contradicted?

(a) All men are honest. (b) Some men are honest.

(c) No men are honest. (d) All the above

 15. A stipulative definition is

(a) Always true

(b) Always false

(c) Sometimes true sometimes false

(d) Neither true nor false

 16. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to

replace the question mark.

 Examiner – Examinee, Pleader – Client, Preceptor – ?

(a) Customer

(b) Pathfinder

(c) Perceiver

(d) Disciple

 17. If the statement, most of the students are obedient, is

taken to be true, then which one of the following pair of

statements can be claimed to be true?

 I. All obedient persons are students.

 II. All students are obedient.

 III. Some students are obedient.

 IV. Some students are not disobedient.

 Codes:

(a) I and II (b) II and III

(c) III and IV (d) II and IV

 18. Choose the right code:

 A deductive argument claims that:

 I. The conclusion does not claim something more than

that is contained in the premises.

II. The conclusion is supported by the premise or

 premises conclusively.

 III. If the conclusion is false, then premise or premises

may be either true or false.

 IV. If the premise or combination of premises is or are true,

then the conclusion must be true.

 Codes:

(a) I and II

(b) I and III

(c) II and III

(d) All the above

On the basis of the data given in the following table,

provide answers to questions from 19 to 24.

19. How many activities of social services have shown the

expenditure to be less than 5% of the total expenditures

incurred on social services in 2008–2009?

(a) One (b) Three

(c) Five (d) All of these

 20. In which year, the expenditures on social services

increased with the highest rate?

(a) 2007-2008 (b) 2008-2009

(c) 2009-2010 (d) 2010-2011

 21. Which of the following activities remain almost stagnant

in terms of shares of expenditure?

(a) North-eastern areas

(b) Welfare of SC/ST and OBC

(c) Information and broadcasting

(d) Social welfare and nutrition

 22. Which of the following item’s expenditure share is

almost equal to the remaining three items in the given

years?

(a) Information and broadcasting

(b) Welfare of SC/ST and OBC

(c) Labour and employment

(d) Social welfare and nutrition

23. Which of the following items of social services have registered the highest rate of increase in expenditure during

2007-2008 to 2010-2011?

(a) Education, sports and youth affairs.

(b) Welfare of SC/ST and OBC.

(c) Social welfare and nutrition.

(d) Overall social services.

 24. Which of the following items have registered the highest rate of decline in terms of expenditure during

 2007-2008 to 2009-2010?

(a) Labour and employment

(b) Health and family welfare

(c) Social welfare and nutrition

(d) Education, sports and youth affairs

 25. ALU stands for

(a) American Logic Unit

(b) Alternate Local Unit

(c) Alternating Logic Unit

(d) Arithmetic Logic Unit

 26. A personal computer uses a number of chips mounted on

a circuit board called

(a) Microprocessor (b) System board

(c) Daughter board (d) Motherboard

 27. Computer virus is a

(a) Hardware (b) Bacteria

(c) Software (d) None of these

 28. Which one of the following is correct?

(a) (17)10 = (17)16 (b) (17)10 = (17)8

(c) (17)10 = (10111)2

 (d) (17)10 = (10001)2

 29. The file extension of MS-Word document in Office 2007

is __________

(a) .pdf (b) .doc

(c) .docx (d) .txt

 30. __________ is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download e-mails to your computer.

(a) TCP (b) FTP

(c) SMTP (d) POP

 31. Which of the following is a source of methane?

(a) Wetlands

(b) Foam industry

(c) Thermal power plants

(d) Cement industry

 32. Minamata disease in Japan was caused by pollution due

to

(a) Lead (b) Mercury

(c) Cadmium (d) Zinc

 33. Biomagnification means increase in the

(a) Concentration of pollutants in living organisms.

(b) Number of species.

(c) Size of living organisms.

(d) Biomass

 34. Nagoya protocol is related to

(a) Climate change (b) Ozone depletion

(c) Hazardous waste (d) Biodiversity

 35. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy needs is

(a) Solar energy (b) Nuclear energy

(c) Hydropower (d) Wind energy

 36. In case of earthquakes, an increase in magnitude 1 on

Richter scale implies

(a) A ten-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic

waves.

(b) A ten-fold increase in the energy of the seismic

waves.

(c) A two-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic

waves.

(d) A two-fold increase in the energy of seismic waves.

 37. Which of the following is not a measure of human development index?

(a) Literacy rate (b) Gross enrolment

(c) Sex ratio (d) Life expectancy

 38. India has the highest number of students in colleges

after

(a) UK (b) USA

(c) Australia (d) Canada

 39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct

about the Attorney General of India?

 I. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to

be a judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General

of India.

 II. He has the right of audience in all the courts of the

country.

 III. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of

the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

 IV. He has a fixed tenure.

 Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

 Codes:

(a) I and IV (b) II, III and IV

(c) III and IV (d) III only

 40. Which of the following prefixes President Pranab

Mukherjee desires to discontinue while interacting with

Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings?

 I. His Excellency

 II. Mahamahim

 III. Hon’ble

 IV. Shri/Smt

 Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

 Codes:

(a) I and III (b) II and III

(c) I and II (d) I, II and III

 41. Which of the following can be done under conditions of

financial emergency?

 I. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.

 II. Central government can acquire control over the

budget and expenditure of states.

 III. Salaries of the judges of High Courts and the

Supreme Court can be reduced.

 IV. Right to constitutional remedies can be suspended.

 Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV

(c) I and II (d) II and III

 42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer

from the codes given below.

Codes:

(a) A-IV, B-I, C-III and D-II

(b) A-II, B-III, C-IV and D-I

(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I and D-II

(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II and D-I

 43. For an efficient and durable learning, the learner should

have

(a) Ability to learn only

(b) Requisite level of motivation only.

(c) Opportunities to learn only.

(d) Desired level of ability and motivation

44. Classroom communication must be

(a) Teacher-centric (b) Student-centric

(c) General-centric (d) Textbook-centric

 45. The best method of teaching is to

(a) Impart information.

(b) Ask students to read books.

(c) Suggest good reference material.

(d) Initiate a discussion and participate in it.

 46. Interaction inside the classroom should generate

(a) Argument (b) Information

(c) Ideas (d) Controversy

 47. ‘Spare the rod and spoil the child’ gives the message that

(a) Punishment in the class should be banned.

(b) Corporal punishment is not acceptable.

(c) Undesirable behaviour must be punished.

(d) Children should be beaten with rods.

 48. The type of communication that a teacher has in the

classroom is termed as

(a) Interpersonal

(b) Mass communication

(c) Group communication

(d) Face-to-face communication

 49. Which of the following is an indication of the quality of a

research journal?

(a) Impact factor (b) h-index

(c) g-index (d) i10-index

 50. Good research ethics means

(a) Not disclosing the holdings of shares or stocks in a

company that sponsors your research.

(b) Assigning a particular research problem to one

Ph.D. or research student only.

(c) Discussing with your colleagues confidential data

from a research paper that you are reviewing for an

academic journal.

(d) Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more than one journal.

 51. Which of the following sampling methods is based on

probability?

(a) Convenience sampling

(b) Quota sampling

(c) Judgement sampling

(d) Stratified sampling

 52. Which one of the following references is written according to American Psychological Association (APA)

format?

(a) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of Computer

Science. New Delhi: Tata McGraw Hill

(b) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer

Science. New Delhi: Tata McGraw Hill

(c) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer

Science, New Delhi: Tata McGraw Hill

(d) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer

Science, New Delhi: Tata McGraw Hill

 53. Arrange the following steps of research in correct

sequence:

 I. Identification of research problem

 II. Listing of research objectives

 III. Collection of data

IV. Methodology

 V. Data analysis

 VI. Results and discussion

 Codes:

(a) I, II, III, IV, V and VI (b) I, II, III, IV, V and VI

(c) II, I, III, IV, V and VI (d) II, I, IV, III, V and VI

 54. Identify the incorrect statement.

(a) A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigations.

(b) A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any

assumption of its truth.

(c) A hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a

phenomenon.

(d) A scientific hypothesis is a scientific theory.

Read the following passage carefully and answer

the questions from 55 to 60.

The popular view of towns and cities in developing

countries and of urbanization process is that despite

the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of

such cities connotes environmental degradation, generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment, crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos and so

on. But what is the reality? Given the unprecedented

increase in urban population over the past 50 years

from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in developing countries, the wonder is how well the world has

coped and not how badly.

In general, the urban quality of life has improved in

terms of availability of water and sanitation, power,

health and education, communication, and transport. By way of illustration, a large number of urban

residents have been provided with improved water in

urban areas in Asia’s largest countries, such as China,

India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the

access to improved water in terms of percentage of

total urban population seems to have declined during

the past decade of 20th century, although in absolute

numbers, millions of additional urbanites have been

provided improved services. These countries have

made significant progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together, providing for an additional

population of more than 293 million citizens within

a decade (1990-2000). These improvements must

be viewed against the backdrop of rapidly increasing

urban population, fiscal crunch and strained human

resources and efficient and quality-oriented public

management.

 55. The popular view about the process of urbanization in

developing countries is

(a) Positive (b) Negative

(c) Neutral (d) Unspecified

 56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites

in developing countries, from 1950 to 2000 AD, was

close to

(a) 30 million (b) 40 million

(c) 50 million (d) 60 million

 57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in

(a) How well the situation has been managed

(b) How badly the situation has gone out of control

(c) How fast has been the tempo of urbanization

(d) How fast the environment has degraded

 58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator of urban quality of life?

(a) Tempo of urbanization

(b) Provision of basic services

(c) Access to social amenities

(d) All of the above

 59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on

(a) Extension of knowledge

(b) Generation of environmental consciousness

(c) Analytical reasoning

(d) Descriptive statement

 60. In the above passage, the author intends to state

(a) The hazards of the urban life

(b) The sufferings of the urban life

(c) The awareness of human progress

(d) The limits of growth

Answer keys

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (a)

11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b)

21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)

31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (c)

41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (b)

51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (d)

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